Bible Prophecy

You don’t have to incorporate yourself in prophecy but let the prophecies unfold clearly and without any doubt

MV:more sure word of prophecy,2P1:19

Bib1Yr: 2John-truth’s Sake

 



New Living Translation EXPOSED!
by Robert J. Stewart

The New Living Translation (NLT) is straight from Hell. On their official website, NLT advertises with the slogan, "Accuracy you can trust." Unfortunately, the NLT is not very accurate. The fact that the word "begotten" has been wrongfully removed from John 3:16 should be enough reason for every Christian to trash their NLT.

 In fact, I would rip it into shreds first to ensure that no one else is poisoned by it. To say that Jesus is God's "only son" is a lie! In fact, God has many sons according to Scriptures such as 1st John 3:1, "Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God." 

 Biblically, God has MANY sons, but Jesus is the only BEGOTTEN Son. So you see, ANY bible which removes the word "begotten" from John 3:16 becomes heresy. This includes most modern bibles such as the perverted New International Version (NIV), The Book For Teens (TBFT), the New Living Translation (NLT), the New Believer's Bible (NBB), the Living Bible (LB), and many more. 

 It is tragic!
Let's face it, the corrupters who are publishing demonic bibles are all out to make a fast buck, filthy lucre! In order to reach the largest market base possible, they trim and water down the Scriptures as much as tolerable. 

 This is evil. God hates Bible corruption --Deuteronomy 4:2, "Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you." Well, the NLT butchers have diminished God's Word by subtracting "begotten" from John 3:16.

The NLT was published in 1996 by Tyndale Publishers. Few Christians realize that there have been over 200 new Bible translations published just within the last 30 years. It's blatantly obvious that this evil is the result of much greed and love for money (1st Timothy 6:10). The NLT is based upon Kenneth N. Taylor's corrupted Living Bible (1971). 

 His perverted Living Bible sold over 40 million copies in North America alone. Taylor died in June of 2005 at age 88. It is wicked to corrupt the Word of God (2nd Peter 3:16). Now comes the damnable New Living translation. 

 Although the NLT preface claims that 87 scholars were involved in the word of translation, I have to seriously wonder if any of them really loved Jesus Christ. 1st Peter 2:7 reads, "Unto you therefore which believe he is precious..." How could any professed Christian who loves Jesus be involved in a bible translation that perverts the Word of God. The fact that dozens of different ecumenical groups were involved in the work of translation speaks volumes as to the Devil's attempt to water down the Word of God. 

 Increasingly, modern bible translations must be more politically correct in order to sell at high volumes. So as the world plunges further into the depths of wickedness and apostasy, new translations must follow along if they are to sell.

 Take a look at The Book For Teens bible, which is based upon the New Living Translation, not one mention is made of the blood of Jesus in the section on "Salvation through Jesus Christ" (Page A47). The blood of Jesus is a taboo subject nowadays amongst many pseudo-Christian groups, thanks to heretics like John MacArthur.

As further proof of corruption, Billy Graham endorses the NLT on the front cover jacket. Billy Graham is Mr. ecumenical himself, who has done more to unite apostate protestants with the Great Whore of Catholicism than anyone else. 2nd Corinthians 6:14-17 commands us to separate from the unbelieving world, NOT yoke up with them. Ephesians 5:11 tells us to reprove the works of darkness, NOT fellowship with them. Billy graham is on the Devil's side, a friend of the world, and the enemy of God (James 4:4). 

 The Catholic Church is straight out of the pits of Hell and it's about time that ALL the preachers around the world start proclaiming it. Billions of souls are headed for destruction because of compromised and cowardly pastors and preachers who are afraid to offend anyone. 

 Speak the Truth! Offend them! Their souls are at stake!

Corrupted Scriptures in the New Living Translation

· Deuteronomy - "sodomite" changed to "temple prostitute"
· 1 Kings 14:24 - "sodomites" replaced with "shrine prostitutes"
· 1 Kings 15:12 - "sodomites" replaced with "shrine prostitutes"
· 1 Kings 22:46 - "sodomites" replaced with "shrine prostitutes"
· 2 Kings 23:7 - "sodomites" replaced with "shrine prostitutes"
· Matthew 17:21 - entire verse omitted
· Matthew 18:11 - entire verse omitted
· Matthew 19:9 - half of the verse is omitted
· Matthew 23:14 - entire verse omitted
· Mark 6:11 - half of the verse is omitted
· Mark 7:16 - entire verse omitted
· Mark 9:44, 46 - entire verses omitted
· Mark 11:26 - entire verse omitted
· Mark 15:28 - entire verse omitted
· Mark 16:9-20 - entire passage is questioned by a footnote that says, "The most reliable early manuscripts conclude the Gospel of Mark at verse 8"
· Luke 4:8 - "get thee behind me Satan" is omitted
· Luke 17:36 - entire verse omitted
· Luke 23:17 - entire verse omitted
· John 1:10 - says God created everything "through" Jesus instead of "by" Jesus as the KJB teaches
· John 1:41 - The NLT leaves out the phrase, "Which is by interpretation, a stone." Hence, the critical distinction between Peter as "the stone" (Petros), and Jesus as "The Rock" (Petra) is obscured. This was no doubt deliberate to pleases Catholics who falsely teach that Peter is the rock upon which the church is built. The Bible states in no uncertain terms, "For other foundation can no man lay than that is laid, which is Jesus Christ" (1st Corinthians 3:11).
· John 3:16 - the all important word "begotten" is omitted, thus denying the deity of Christ
· John 3:13 - "which is in heaven" is omitted John 5:4 - entire verse omitted
· John 7:53 - 8:11 -- entire passage is questioned in a note which says, "The most ancient Greek manuscripts do not include John 7:53 - 8:11"
· Acts 8:37 - entire verse omitted
· Acts 12:4 - changes "Easter" to the incorrect "Passover" (See Numbers 28:16,17 and Acts 12:2 in the KJB)
· Acts 17:29 - completely removes the "Godhead"
· Acts 28:29 - entire verse omitted
· Romans 1:20 - completely removes the "Godhead"
· Romans 16:24 - entire verse omitted
· Philippians 2:6 -removes the word "equal," thus denying Christ's deity
· Colossians 1:16 - says God created everything "through" Jesus instead of "by" Jesus as the KJB teaches
· Colossians 2:9 - completely removes the "Godhead"
· 1 Timothy 3:16 - "God" is omitted, says "Christ appeared in the flesh, thus denying the deity of Christ
· 1 Timothy 6:5 - "from such withdraw thyself" is omitted
· Hebrews 1:3 - the all-important words "by himself" are omitted
· 1 Peter 4:1 - "for us" is omitted
· 1 Peter 4:14 - half of the verse is omitted
· 1 John 3:16 -completely removes "the love of God"
· 1 John 4:3 - the all-important words "Christ is come in the flesh" are omitted 1 John 5:7-8 -- Trinitarian clause omitted
· 1 John 5:7 - half of the verse is omitted, thus denying the Godhead
· 1 John 5:13 - half of the verse is omitted
· Revelation 1:11 - first half of the verse is omitted
· Revelation 5:14 - "him that liveth forever and ever" is omitted

NLT perverts the Godhead!
1st John 5:7 is a vital Scripture that EVERY Christian should know. This Scripture clearly proclaims that God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Ghost are ONE. But, the NLT says otherwise...
KJB - "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."
NLT - "So we have these three witnesses."
What blasphemy! Many Christians have bought into the lie that 1st John 5:7 wasn't in the originals --IT WAS! It depends on which originals you're talking about. The Textus Receptus (or received text) from which our reliable King James Bible comes DOES contain 1st John 5:7.

1st John 5:7 in the NLT greatly contradicts John 10:30...
"I and my Father are one." -John 10:30 KJB
It also contradicts Luke 3:22...
"And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased."
The NLT Bible-corrupters even removed the Godhead from Romans 1:20...
KJB - "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"
NLT - "From the time the world was created, people have seen the earth and sky and all that God made. They can clearly see his invisible qualities--his eternal power and divine nature. So they have no excuse whatsoever for not knowing God.
One of the most popular attacks that unbelievers launch against Christians is to say that the word "trinity" is not even found in the Bible. The best defense is to show them the multiple Scriptures in the Word of God which teach about the GODHEAD. Tragically, the word "Godhead" isn't even mentioned in the NLT. What? Yes, that is correct...some "accurate" translation huh? This is why I confidently say that the New Living Translation is straight from Hell. Here's Acts 17:29 compared...
KJB - "Forasmuch then as we are the offspring of God, we ought not to think that the Godhead is like unto gold, or silver, or stone, graven by art and man's device."
NLT - "And since this is true, we shouldn't think of God as an idol designed by craftsmen from gold or silver or stone."
Many cults (such as Islamic Muslims and Jehovah Witnesses) acknowledge the existence of a god, but deny the Godhead. It is tragic that so many believers are supporting these modern versions that maliciously attack the Godhead and Jesus' deity. Look what they've done to Colossians 2:9...
KJB - "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
NLT - "For in Christ the fullness of God lives in a human body."

I noticed a tiny asterisk mark (*) next to Colossians 2:9 in the NLT. I looked to the bottom to see what the footnote said... "Greek in him dwells all the fullness of the Godhead bodily." Do you see what is happening here? To make everybody happy, the NLT Bible-corrupters completely removed "Godhead" to appease the liberals, but then they've also placed the truth in a little footnote in an attempt to appease conservative protestants.

 Why in the world would they not place the literal Greek translation in Colossians 2:9, why would they put the correct Greek translation in a tiny footnote at the bottom of the page? Do you know what happens in the making of a new bible? It's kind of like the bargaining table at contract time between the union and company management. 

 All the different religious denominations are invited to the bargaining table and a meeting is held to decide what COMPROMISES must be made to make the "new" bible acceptable to their particular denomination. This is all done in an attempt to reach the largest market base possible. By the time the new corrupted bible is finished, without fail, the Godhead (trinity) and the deity of Jesus Christ are greatly diminished.

 This is why I love the old King James Bible, it proudly proclaims the Godhead and the deity of our Precious Lord Jesus Christ.

NLT perverts Christ's Deity!
One of the most important verses in the Bible is John 3:16. As mentioned earlier, the NLT perverts this verse by removing the word "begotten," thus saying that God only has one son. But 1st John 3:1 in the KJB reads, "Behold, what manner of love the Father hath bestowed upon us, that we should be called the sons of God: therefore the world knoweth us not, because it knew him not." Clearly, God has many sons, but bJesus is the only BEGOTTEN Son of God, which makes Jesus God.

KJB - " "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life." -John 3:16
NLT - "For God so loved the world that he gave he gave his only son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life." -John 3:16

The NLT teaches heresy!
"For ye are all the children of God by faith in Christ Jesus." -Galatians 3:26 KJB
The NLT also corrupts 1st Timothy 3:16...
KJB - "...God was manifest in the flesh..."
TBFT - "...Christ appeared in the flesh..."

Jesus claimed to be Almighty God in Revelation 1:8. For anyone to diminish 1st Timothy 3:16 to a mere "Christ appeared in the flesh" is ridiculous. Any idiot knows that Jesus appeared in the flesh! 

 But the KJB declares that GOD was manifest (or revealed) in the fleshly body of Jesus Christ. It angers many people when you promote the deity of Christ, thus the reason why ALL modern bibles attack Jesus' deity.

Again, the NLT perverts Philippians 2:5, 6...
KJB - "Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God."
NLT - "Though he was God, he did not demand and cling to his rights as God."
The NLT cleverly corrupted Philippians 2:6 by removing the word "equal." In so doing, they have lowered Jesus to the God of the Jehovah Witnesses. JW's teach that Jesus is "a god," but not Almighty God, which is a lie of the Devil. By saying that Jesus is "equal" with God, the KJB is clearly declaring Christ as Almighty God.

As further proof of the NLT attack on Jesus' deity, look at Colossians 1:16...
KJB - "For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth..."
NLT - "Christ is the one through whom God created everything in heaven and earth."
Blasphemy! The KJB declares that Jesus created all things, but the NLT wrongfully teaches that God created all things through Jesus. This is exactly what the Jehovah Witnesses cult teaches. JW's deny Christ's deity (as do most cults). JW's teach that God created everything THROUGH Jesus. On the contrary, the KJB proclaims in Colossians 1:16 that Jesus Christ created all things Himself. It is wicked heresy to say that Jesus did not create the universe by His own Word. John 1:10 reads, "He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not." 

 Sadly, the NLT perverts this Scripture also, claiming that God created the universe "through" Jesus instead of "by" Jesus as the Word of God teaches in the KJB. The JW's would be proud of the NLT. Oh listen friend, you need to burn your NLT because it dishonors and dethrones the Lord Jesus Christ.

NLT perverts Acts 12:4!
The NLT perverts Acts 12:4 by changing "Easter" to "Passover." Numbers 28:16,17 clearly teaches that the seven days of unleavened bread FOLLOWED the day of Passover. Acts 12:2 in the KJB tells us that the days of unleavened bread were already being observed, which means that the day of Passover was OVER! So when the NIV and the NLT say that Herod was waiting for the Passover in Acts 12:5, they are lying! The KJB wisely uses the proper word "Easter" because the Passover had already occurred.

NLT completely removes the word "sodomite" from the Bible
God describes homosexuals with the word "sodomite" for a reason. Jude 1:7 reads, "Even as Sodom and Gomorrha, and the cities about them in like manner, giving themselves over to fornication, and going after strange flesh, are set forth for an example, suffering the vengeance of eternal fire." The word "sodomite" comes from the city of Sodom, a city so vile and wicked that God decided to utterly destroy it by reigning down fire and brimstone from Heaven. To call homosexuality, "sodomy," implies the judgment of God upon the wicked sin of homosexuality. The modern definition of sodomy is NOT the Biblical definition. Sodomy in the Bible is defined as sex between two men, or two women (homosexuality and lesbianism). We read of the woeful homosexuality problem in Sodom in Genesis 19:4, 5. American society has plunged horribly into wickedness and apostasy, even to the extent of corrupting the Bible for the sake of being politically correct to make money. Now there's even a homosexual bible.

New Living Translation, second edition (2004)
Mark R. Norton, ed., Holy Bible, New Living Translation. 2nd edition. Wheaton, Illinois: Tyndale House, 2004.
This is a revision of the New Living Translation that was published by Tyndale House in 1996. A "Note to Readers" in the second edition explains that the main purpose of the revision was "increasing the level of the NLT's precision." It claims that the revised NLT is now a "general-purpose text especially good for study":
The Holy Bible New Living Translation, was first published in 1996. It quickly became one of the most popular Bibles in the English-speaking world. While the NLT's influence was rapidly growing, the NLT Bible Translation Committee determined that an additional investment in scholarly review and text refinement could make it even better. So shortly after its initial publication, the committee began an eight-year process with the purpose of increasing the level of the NLT's precision without sacrificing its easy-to-understand quality. This second generation text was completed in 2004 and is reflected in this edition of the New Living Translation.
The goal of any Bible translation is to convey the meaning and content of the ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek texts as accurately as possible to contemporary readers. The challenge for our translators was to create a text that would communicate as clearly and powerfully to today's readers as the original texts did to readers and listeners in the ancient biblical world. The resulting translation is easy to read and understand, while also accurately communicating the meaning and content of the original biblical texts. The NLT is a general-purpose text especially good for study, devotional reading and to be read aloud in public worship.
Three years ago I published a review of the 1996 New Living Translation, in which I pointed out some of the more important inaccuracies of the version. The problems were considerable, even to the extent that one of the NLT's own translators had written, "I never recommend it to anyone except to supplement the reading of a more literal translation to generate freshness and new insights, unless they are kids or very poor adult readers." I am glad to report now that in the 2004 revision most of the problems I identified and discussed in my earlier review have been rectified. There is a substantial increase in accuracy throughout the version, and the version's "schmaltzy" quality has been toned down quite a bit also. The editors at Tyndale house are to be commended for this improvement, which will contribute to a more accurate knowledge of the Word of God among those who use the New Living Translation.

However, it must also be said that the revised NLT continues to be much less accurate than other versions commonly used in American churches (including even the New International Version), and it does not rise to the level of accuracy that readers need for serious study or appreciation of the Bible's details. I can illustrate the shortcomings with randomly selected passages:
Genesis 3:14-24

New Living Translation
14 Then the LORD God said to the serpent,
"Because you have done this, you are cursed more than all animals, domestic and wild.
You will crawl on your belly, groveling in the dust as long as you live.
15 And I will cause hostility between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring.
He will strike* your head, and you will strike his heal."
16 Then he said to the woman,
"I will sharpen the pain of your pregnancy, and in pain you will give birth.
And you will desire to control your husband, but he will rule over you."*
17 And to the man he said,
"Since you listened to your wife and ate from the tree whose fruit I commanded you not to eat,
the ground is cursed because of you.
All your life you will struggle to scratch a living from it.
18 It will grow thorns and thistles for you, though you will eat of its grains.
19 By the sweat of your brow will you have food to eat
until you return to the ground from which you were made.
For you were made from dust, and to dust you will return."

Paradise Lost: God's Judgment
20 Then the man—Adam—named his wife Eve, because she would be the mother of all who live.* 21 And the LORD God made clothing from animal skins for Adam and his wife.
22 Then the LORD God said, "Look, the human beings* have become like us, knowing both good and evil. What if they reach out, take fruit from the tree of life, and eat it? Then they will live forever! 23 So the LORD God banished them from the garden of Eden, and he sent Adam out to cultivate the ground from which he had been made. 24 After sending them out, the LORD God stationed mighty cherubim to the east of the garden of Eden. And he placed a flaming sword that flashed back and forth to guard the way to the tree of life.
________________
3:15 Or bruise; also in 3:15b. 3:16 Or And though you will have desire for your husband, he will rule over you. 3:20 Eve sounds like a Hebrew term that means "to give life." 3:22 Or the man; Hebrew reads ha-adam. English Standard Version
14 The LORD God said to the serpent,
"Because you have done this, cursed are you above all livestock and above all beasts of the field;
on your belly you shall go, and dust you shall eat all the days of your life.
15 I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring 1 and her offspring;
he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel."
16 To the woman he said,
"I will surely multiply your pain in childbearing; in pain you shall bring forth children.
Your desire shall be for 2 your husband, and he shall rule over you."
17 And to Adam he said,
"Because you have listened to the voice of your wife and have eaten of the tree of which I commanded you, 'You shall not eat of it,'
cursed is the ground because of you;
in pain you shall eat of it all the days of your life;
18 thorns and thistles it shall bring forth for you; and you shall eat the plants of the field.
19 By the sweat of your face you shall eat bread,
till you return to the ground, for out of it you were taken;
for you are dust, and to dust you shall return."

20 The man called his wife's name Eve, 3 because she was the mother of all living. 21 And the LORD God made for Adam and for his wife garments of skins and clothed them.
22 Then the LORD God said, "Behold, the man has become like one of us in knowing good and evil. Now, lest he reach out his hand and take also of the tree of life and eat, and live forever—" 23 therefore the LORD God sent him out from the garden of Eden to work the ground from which he was taken. 24 He drove out the man, and at the east of the garden of Eden he placed the cherubim and a flaming sword that turned every way to guard the way to the tree of life.
________________
1. Hebrew seed; so throughout Genesis.
2. Or against.
3. Eve sounds like the Hebrew for life-giver and resembles the word for living.
In Genesis 3:14 the NLT has the serpent "groveling in the dust" instead of literally "eating dirt," correctly interpreting this dirt-eating as a figure for humiliation. But the figure of speech here is easily recognized as such, and it ought to be translated literally, because this curse is a result of the serpent's tempting the woman to eat the forbidden fruit. The expression "eat the dirt" is meant to indicate that the serpent's punishment fits his crime. Poetic justice.
Likewise in verse 17 the sentence against Adam, "in pain you shall eat of [the ground's produce] all the days of your life" is poetic justice, because his crime was eating the forbidden fruit. The NLT obscures this by paraphrasing the sentence "All your life you will struggle to scratch a living from it," omitting the key word "eat." Also in verse 17 the NLT translates the word ????? (meaning "painful labor") as "struggle," after having translated the same word as "pain" in the sentence on Eve in the preceding verse. This obscures the fact that both man and woman are being sentenced to "painful labor" in 3:16-17.
In verse 16 it is said that the woman's ????? (teshukah, "eager desire") shall be toward her husband. This is the same word as in Gen. 4:7 and Song 7:10, and in all three places the NLT interprets it as a desire to control or capture. But this is very questionable. The word in itself means "eager desire," and here (as in Song 7:10) it would be most naturally understood as conjugal desire. The recurrence of the phrase in 4:7, in which it is used in a figure comparing sin to an animal, suggests that there is a connotation of appetite in the word. If so, we would have here a word that fits in with the "eating" theme of the passage. In any case, it seems best to render it simply "desire," as in the ESV and most other versions, and to give a footnote on the possible meanings of the preposition ?? in this context. The basic meaning of the preposition ?? is "toward," and it may be interpreted as "for," "against," or "according to." One possible meaning of the saying here is, "the fulfillment of your desire shall be according to your husband's will." As John Gill puts it in his commentary, "this is to be understood of her being solely at the will and pleasure of her husband; that whatever she desired should be referred to him, whether she should have her desire or not, or the thing she desired; it should be liable to be controlled by his will, which must determine it, and to which she must be subject." This is the interpretation found in the Latin Vulgate (sub viri potestate eris, et ipse dominabitur tui, "you shall be under the man's power, and he shall have dominion over you"), and the translators of the King James Version indicated it in a marginal note: "Or, [thy desire shall be] subject to thy husband." It is likely that the sentence against Eve makes mention of her "desire" because it was her covetous gazing upon that "desirable" tree (3:6) that led her into sin, and so God puts her "desire" under the control of her husband. The interpretation adopted in the NLT is not found in the older commentaries, nor is there any support for it in the standard Lexicons (Brown-Driver-Briggs and Koehler-Baumgartner), and I think many people who read this in the NLT will get the impression that God is putting enmity between the man and the woman in the same way that he put enmity between the woman and the serpent. That would be an unfortunate misreading of the text. It was good for God to put enmity between the woman and the enemy of her soul, who so cruelly manipulated her; but it would not be good for him to put enmity between her and her natural "head" (Ephesians 5:23). The word translated "rule" here (???, mashal) does not connote an overbearing tyrannical rule. (The Jerusalem Bible's "he will lord it over you" is unjustified.)
Also in verse 16, note the ironic contrast of "I will surely multiply your painful labor" (the verb here is ???) with the blessing in 1:28, "be fruitful and multiply" (??? again). This verbal connection really should be preserved in a translation for the sake of those who are reading closely. What we have here in "Eve's curse" is an ironic use of the formulaic language of a blessing. The NLT's "I will sharpen the pain" does not show this verbal feature, but the ESV's "I will surely multiply your pain" does.

One thing the revised NLT is to be commended for in this passage is the formatting. Verses 14-19 are formatted as poetry, with line breaks and indentations. In the original NLT this passage was formatted as prose. The presentation of Hebrew verse is really much more important than many people think it is, because with the proper line breaks the reader can immediately see the parallelisms, and can know that he is reading poetry. When we read English literature we do not read poetry with the same expectations that we bring to prose; when we encounter poetry we slow down and we look for more significance, and we expect to find an artful use of words. Likewise one should not read Hebrew poetry as if it were prose. In poetry there is a difference in the way language is used, and a difference in the way it should be interpreted. Many of the poetic features in Bible passages are lost even in the best translations, but a good literal translation can preserve some of them, such as the ones I have indicated here.
In verse 20, it seems that the NLT revisers could not decide whether to use "the man" or "Adam" for ???? (ha-adam), so they give both: "the man—Adam—named his wife..." This is rather awkward, and the reason for the double translation is not clear to me. At this point in the narrative "the man" can only refer to Adam, because there is no other man. It would have been better to give one or the other (the original NLT had just "Adam"). A much-needed improvement has been made with the rendering "the mother of all who live." The original NLT had "the mother of all people everywhere," but this obscured the whole purpose of the verse, which was to make a connection between the name of Eve and the Hebrew word for "the living."

In verses 22-24 the NLT's translation is distorted by an attempt to make the language explicitly gender-inclusive. In the Hebrew the sentences in this paragraph are not gender-inclusive; they speak of Adam (cf. the ESV for the literal translation). Of course we are to understand that Eve was driven out with him; but the narrative focuses on the man, as it often does in Scripture. If the NLT revisers felt that they must have a neutralized translation in this paragraph, they should at least have indicated the correct translation of these verses in the margin, because the focus on the man is significant. Although Eve was the first in sin, God's attention is primarily upon Adam, because he alone is the covenant head of the race, representing all mankind—as his name also indicates.
There is a footnote on the phrase "human beings" in verse 22 ("Or the man; Hebrew reads ha-adam"), but this footnote gives the erroneous impression that "the man" is only a possible alternative rendering. It should read, "Hebrew, the man," or indicate by some other means that the Hebrew word actually means "the man" here, and that the pronouns in verse 23 which refer back to this word are singular and masculine, not plural. The paragraph does not make sense in the Hebrew if we try to read it as if the word adam meant an individual generic "human being," and the word cannot be construed as a collective singular adam, because in verse 23 it becomes clear that a particular adam is in view, namely Adam, who was expelled "to work the ground from which he was taken" (compare 2:7, 2:22, and 3:16-17). But it seems that this footnote is designed to mention the correct translation of adam without admitting that the rendering in the text is a gender-neutralizing paraphrase. Frankly, I suspect that this note was written by an editor who had no real knowledge of Hebrew. If it was written by a scholar, I would have to call it either careless or disingenuous. There is no way that the singular adam denotes "human beings" anywhere in this narrative. The singular form may be used in the collective sense of "mankind" (e.g. Genesis 1:26-27), but when it is used as a common noun in reference to an individual human being, as it is here, it can only mean "man."
The NLT revisers would have done well to imitate the NRSV here, which refrains from neutralizing the language in 3:22-24. I do not in general support the gender-neutral language movement in Bible translations, but I observe that among the gender-neutralizing versions the NRSV consistently handles this matter with more care and more scholarly integrity than the NLT and TNIV.

Regarding the translation of the interjection ??? (hen) in verse 22, I will say that there is no better English equivalent for it than "Behold." The problem with "Look" is, it gives the impression that God is saying to the heavenly council "Look there," Look at that," etc., but that is not the meaning of ???. The meaning of the word is more along the lines of "consider this." In most cases it is used simply as a way of indicating that the following words give some important fact upon which action is to be taken, or a premise upon which some conclusion is to be based. For example, in Genesis 4:14 Cain says to God, "Behold (hen), you have driven me from the land ... and so anyone who finds me will kill me." The word "Look" is also used in this way in current English, but when it is used in this way it has a sarcastic or disrespectful tone: "Look, you have driven me from the land," etc. The inappropriateness of this is so obvious in 4:14 that the NLT simply omits any rendering of the interjection. But it is just as inappropriate to use "Look" in 3:22, because there hen has the very same meaning as it does in 4:14. Why not use the word "Behold" for this? It seems that recent translations avoid this word only because it sounds old-fashioned, but there is no other English word that will serve the purpose of accurate translation. The idea that everything must be modern-sounding and colloquial really interferes with the ability of translators to give us accurate renderings, and it ought to be discarded.

In the second half of verse 22, the NLT's rendering—"What if they reach out, take fruit from the tree of life, and eat it? Then they will live forever!"—is very inappropriate in tone. Here God seems to be in a panic about what could happen next. This will not do at all. Surely the ESV's literal "Now, lest he reach out ..." more accurately conveys the thoughts of our sovereign and omniscient God. Here again it seems that a desire to make the style colloquial is at fault.

Matthew 1
NLT: This is a record of the ancestors
The Greek says Biblos geneseos, the "book of the genesis" (origin) of Jesus Christ, not the book of his "ancestors." This phrase — which is not an ordinary Greek way of referring to a genealogy — derives from the Hebrew expression sefer toledot "book of the generations," used in Genesis 5:1, translated biblos geneseos in the Septuagint (which also uses the phrase in Genesis 2:4). It is an instance of the Hebraic "biblical Greek" style of the New Testament. Probably Matthew used it as a literary echo of the language of the Hebrew Scriptures. It is interesting to note that he begins the Gospel account with a phrase that recalls the genesis (beginning) of all things, as recorded in the first book of the Bible. The NLT has interpreted it as a sentence which refers to the genealogy that follows. Actually, it is a caption, like the caption that the translators have supplied in italics above it ("The Ancestors of Jesus the Messiah"), and not a complete sentence, because in the Greek there is no "This is ..." I see no reason why it should not be translated as a caption, or why the abstract noun genesis should not be more accurately translated. "Ancestry" would have been better than "ancestors." It seems, however, that the word "ancestors" appears here because in the Living Bible the caption is translated "These are the ancestors ..." The NLT revision of the Living Bible changed "These are" to "This is a record of," but left the inaccurate rendering "ancestors" untouched.

of Jesus the Messiah
Greek, Jesou Christou, "of Jesus Christ." The NLT's introduction explains that "the Greek word christos has been translated as 'Messiah' when the context assumes a Jewish audience. When a Gentile audience can be assumed, christos has been translated as 'Christ.'" (p. 16.) But it does not explain why this was done. Evidently the editors felt that "Messiah" (a transliteration of the Hebrew word ????, lit., "anointed one") would convey the sort of Jewish attitudes or expectations about Christ which were suitable for contexts in which Jews are addressed. However, there is no basis for any distinction between a Jewish "Messiah" and a "Christ" for Gentiles in the original text, nor is there any basis for this distinction in orthodox Christian theology. One of the authors of the New Testament, the Apostle John, does use the Hebrew word "Messiah" twice (transliterated ??????? in John 1:41 and 4:25), but in these places he is quoting others verbatim, not making some adjustment for the sake of Jewish readers or contexts. And strangely enough the Hebrew word ???? is not rendered "Messiah" in the NLT's Old Testament where it actually does occur (e.g. Psalm 2:2, Daniel 9:25, 26, where the NLT has "anointed one"). Doesn't the context assume "a Jewish audience" in these places?
a descendant of David
The Greek has "Son of David." This has Messianic overtones, because "son of David" may be understood as a Messianic title. That is, Jesus is not merely "a descendant of David," but "the son of David" appointed to sit on the throne. It is rather puzzling to find this translation after the NLT has shown such a desire to emphasize "Jewish" expectations by using the word "Messiah" instead of "Christ." But "a descendent of" was the rendering in the Living Bible, and so here it is. Probably Taylor thought that "son" might be misunderstood in a strictly literal sense here, as if Matthew were saying that Jesus was the son of a man named David. Yet he allowed the angel in verse 20 to address Joseph as a "son of David," and the revisers have let that stand. Evidently they recognized that people are not so stupid as to take this expression literally when it makes no sense to do so. Why the avoidance of "son of David" in verse 1, then? There really is no need to translate it otherwise. The second edition of the NLT does deserve credit however for adding a footnote here, "Greek, Jesus the Messiah, son of David."

1:2. Abraham was the father of Isaac
The Greek says, "Abraham egennesen (begat) Isaac." The verb refers to the father's procreative role and action, by which the son is conceived. Abraham was not merely "the father of" Isaac, he begat Isaac, and Isaac in turn begat Jacob. Matthew is therefore indicating a series of actions through which the line of biological descent continues down to Joseph. Unfortunately the word "begat" has dropped out of common usage in English (too indelicate for mixed company?), and so the NLT along with most modern versions has the vague expression "was the father of." However, the word "begat" continues to be understood by English readers, and a more modern equivalent is available in the word "fathered." Among recent versions an accurate translation of this word is to be found only in the New King James Version ("begot"), and in the margin of the New American Standard Version ("fathered"). The English Standard Version uses "fathered" in the genealogies of the Old Testament, as a translation of the Hebrew word yalad, but not for egennesen in Matthew.
1:3 whose Mother was Tamar
The Greek says, "Judah begat ... by means of Tamar." So also in verses 5 and 6. See the explanation above.
1:17. All those listed above include fourteen generations
The Greek says that for each of the three periods, "all the generations ... were fourteen generations." The NLT seems to be fudging a bit here, because an accurate translation raises difficulties. Some generations are missing from the genealogy. And so instead of asserting that there were fourteen generations for each period, as the Greek text does, the NLT says that those listed include fourteen generations for each period, without the implication that the genealogy enumerates all the generations. This may be a true interpretation of Matthew's intent, but it is not what he actually says.
1:19. Joseph, her fiancé
The Greek says, "her husband (aner)." The Jews made no distinction between a husband and a fiancé. The betrothal was itself tantamount to marriage, and legally binding. The NLT's use of fiancé here is anachronistic and misleading, because it implies that the author made such a distinction. This is a good example of why it is impractical to try to translate the Bible into a form of English which is entirely natural for "today's readers ... while also accurately communicating the meaning and content of the original biblical texts." A modern and familiar style is suitable for modern and familiar ideas. But very often the ideas of the biblical text are not modern, and they are unfamiliar to modern people who have not received any prior instruction in the historical background of the text. It would be better to translate the word aner accurately as "husband" and to provide the explanation in a footnote.

There are other places in this version where the marriage customs have been accidentally modernized through the use of modern expressions. In ancient Israel, a girl was "given" to a husband in a match arranged by the fathers of the couple, usually when the girl was about sixteen years old; and so in the Hebrew text of Deuteronomy 7:3 Jewish fathers are instructed, "You shall not give your daughter to [a Canaanite's] son, nor take his daughter for your son." But the NLT paraphrases this sentence, "Do not let your daughters and sons marry their sons and daughters," as if the father had only to "let" a son or daughter marry. Now, presumably the NLT translators had the Hebrew text in front of them and were able to read it, and yet they chose not to translate it literally. Why? Is it because they felt that modern readers would not be able to understand what is meant by "giving your daughter"? This seems unlikely, because we all know what it means when a father "gives a daughter" in marriage, and we even make fathers go through a ritualistic giving of the bride in our wedding ceremonies. The expression may be old-fashioned, but it is understood. It seems that the NLT translators avoided the literal rendering here because they wanted to use a more modern-sounding and idiomatic expression. "Do not let your daughters and sons marry ..." is more idiomatic in modern English, to be sure, but there is a cultural reason why this is more idiomatic today: it reflects modern Western realities of courtship, engagement, and marriage.
was a good man, and did not want to disgrace her publicly

The Greek says he was dikaios, a "just" or "righteous" man. Here the first edition of the NLT had "a just man," but the second edition has been changed to "good." Why? Apparently the revisers interpreted this sentence as if Matthew meant that Joseph's "righteousness" was the "goodness" of a man who would not expose his wife to public disgrace, even for adultery. But the word dikaios is not equivalent to agathos ("good"), and it certainly did not have such a vague humanitarian meaning among the Jews (see Luke 1:6). The true interpretation is, Joseph was "righteous" in that he was a respectable observer of the Law of Moses, and as such he could not simply forgive adultery in his wife. The idea here is that Joseph thought that he must divorce her as a matter of principle (hence the rendering in the New English Bible, "being a man of principle"). Actually, the Mosaic Law stipulated that an adulteress must be stoned to death by the community (see Lev. 20:10 and Deut. 22:20-24), and "so shalt thou put away the evil from Israel." So Joseph was bound to divorce her, at the very least, if he knew that she was guilty. Yet he had in mind to do it quietly because he did not relish the prospect of her becoming a public example.
he decided to break the engagement
The Greek here uses an expression meaning "divorce." Joseph was minded to put her away (apolusai auten). Again, the Jewish custom whereby the betrothal is legally equivalent to marriage is indicated in the original text, while the NLT makes a modern distinction. The second edition does add a footnote, "Greek, to divorce her."
1:20 take Mary as your wife
Greek, take Mary your wife, that is, take her into your home. In this sentence "your wife" is in apposition to "Mary." She is already his wife. The question is, shall he bring her into his house or send her away?
the child within her was conceived
The Greek is literally, "that which is begotten in her." Among modern versions only the New American Standard Bible indicates the correct translation, in a footnote.
The odd thing about the first chapter of Matthew's Gospel in the NLT is that the translators have tried to give it a "Jewish" tincture by using the word Messiah instead of Christ—an artificial device for which there is no warrant in the text—but they have actually painted over Jewish features which are in the text. The Hebraic idiom "son of David," the frank emphasis on the biological process of descent and its importance, the use of rounded and symbolical numbers (fourteen), the traditional Eastern customs of marriage and divorce, the Torah-based understanding of "righteousness," all of these things are quite Jewish. But they cannot be seen by the reader of the NLT. Probably the most serious error here is the misinterpretation of dikaios in 1:19. Among English versions the only others that I am aware of which have "a good man" here are the Contemporary English Version and John Henson's Good As New paraphrase. Probably the NLT revisers made this change under the influence of the CEV.
These two passages I have examined in the version (Genesis 3:14-24 and Matthew 1) were chosen at random, not because anything especially bad in them caught my attention. There are some significant weaknesses here, but nothing unusually bad. I think the inaccuracies pointed out here are typical of the version, and of the dynamic equivalence versions in general. Much more should be said about it in a comprehensive review, but I think this suffices to show that the version is not "especially good for study," as the "Note to Readers" claims. Nor do I think it is especially good for "devotional reading and to be read aloud in public worship." It is not clear to me how the NLT's paraphrastic renderings can be seen as very helpful (let alone necessary) for the common reader of the Bible, and the bland and overly colloquial tone of the version will work against any proper feeling of devotion in those who take up the sacred text for daily reading.
Michael Marlowe
July 2005
UPDATE: Between 2004 and 2007, a number of small changes were made in printings of the second edition of the New Living Translation. A list of all changes in the text and footnotes up to 2007 has been provided by the publisher, and is reproduced here. None of the renderings discussed in my review of the second edition were changed, and the few changes that were made do not substantially increase the accuracy of the version. —M.D.M.
Question: What is Truth Serum?
Answer:
If you watched movie "True Lies" with Arnold Schwarzenegger, you probably remember the scene where the terrorists captured heroic CIA secret agent, played by Arnold. The terrorists gave him a shot of a drug that would make him disclose secret information. This drug was supposed to be the "truth serum".
This drug received its nickname "truth serum" after its effects. After taking "truth serum" the patients become very communicative, sharing their thoughts without hesitation. It is common misperception to assume that the truth serum will make you tell the truth. The patient may lose the inhibition, but will not lose self-control. Therefore, the patient will not tell the truth if he/she chooses not to do so. Thus, the episode in the movie "True Lies" involving the truth serum is not presented correctly to the viewers, because Arnold could easily lied to the terrorists.
I decided to look up information on truth serum to find out what it is and how it works. Dorlands' Illustrated Medical Dictionary describes truth serum as "ultra-short-acting barbiturate (drug) to produce general anesthesia, … and for narcoanalysis in psychiatric disorders." The proper name for this drug is thiopental sodium; it is also called Sodium Pentothal, because it is actually a trademark of Abbott Laboratories - the drug's manufacturer. Sodium Pentothal is a yellow crystal, which can be dissolved in water or alcohol. It has alliaceous, garlic-like odor.
If you were to drink a glass of water with Sodium Pentothal, it would depress your central nervous system, slow your heart rate and lower your blood pressure. All of the listed above affects are the functions of any sedative. Sodium Pentothal is commonly used as an anesthetic during surgery. The patient is unconscious within 30 to 60 seconds after the drug administration to the veins. The duration of the anesthesia is very short; it only causes a few minutes of sedation.
Veterinarians also use Sodium Pentothal. When an animal is injured and needs an examination, a quick dose of the drug by tranquilizer dart gives few minutes to the veterinarian to do the examination. It can also be used to calm down a large animal that needs to be shipped from one place to another. Sodium Pentothal slows the metabolism and minimizes the stress and excitement.
This drug has another important property. Sodium Pentothal is a radioprotective agent, which minimizes the effect of radiation. When radiation is present, it attacks the body's tissues on molecular level. Many of our body cells have a "free radical", a species with an electron that is loosely bound to the molecule. When a radiation (short wavelengths with high energy) contacts the free radical it removes the electron form the molecule, altering the molecule's original functions. Sodium Pentothal protects the cells by preventing the radiation electrons to bond with cell's free radicals. If this radioprotective agent is taken three to four hours before the exposure to the radiation, it prolongs the life of body cells even if the dose of radiation was lethal.
Psychiatrists as a part of narcotherapy also use Sodium Pentothal. This drug produces the state of full relaxation and makes patients more susceptible to suggestion, allowing the psychiatrists to uncover the repressed feelings or memories.
Now I found out what is the definition of the truth serum and what multiple functions it serves. Now if you and I will come across words "truth serum" we will know the general functions of it. Hopefully in the future, the media will also provide us with more correct information on "truth serum".
Abracadabra
(the origins and more recent usage as a term used in the performances of prestidigitation or "magic")


A magical charm or incantation having the power to ward off disease or disaster and foolish or unintelligible talk.
Cabbalistic (cabalistic, kabbalistic) charm: mysterious or esoteric; as in, "The cabalistic teachings of the alchemists." The term cabala, kabbalah, or cabbala is said to come from a body of mystical Jewish teachings based on an interpretation of hidden meanings in the Hebrew Scriptures.
It came from early 16th century via medieval Latin, ultimately from rabbinical Hebrew gabbalah, "tradition", from giggel, "to receive, accept". The underlying idea is "something received or handed down".
A cabbalistic charm, said to be made up from the initials of the Hebrew words Ab, "Father", Ben, "Son", and Rukach ACadsch, "Holy Spirit"; and formerly used against agu, flux, toothache, etc.
The word was written on parchment as shown [below] and hung from the neck by a linen thread.
—Brewer's Dictionary of Phrase & Fable;
by Ivor H. Evans, editor; Harper & Row, Publishers;
New York; 1981 edition; page 4.

One of the few words entirely without meaning, this confusing term is still used in a joking way by those making "magic." It was first mentioned in a poem by Quintus Severus Sammonicus in the second century.
A cabalistic word intended to suggest infinity, abracadabra was believed to be a charm with the power to cure toothaches, fevers, and other ills, especially if written on parchment in a triangular arrangement and suspended from the neck by a linen thread. Abracadabra is of unknown origin, though tradition says it is composed by the initials of the Hebrew words Ab, "Father", Ben, "Son", and Ruach Acadsch, "Holy spirit". When a toothache strikes, inscribe a parchment amulet in the following triangular form:
—Encyclopedia of Word and Phrase Origins, Revised and Expanded Edition;
by Robert Hendrickson; Facts On File Inc.;
New York; 1997; page 3.



The word was a holy word of a sect known as Gnostics, an early Christian group that combined religion with witchcraft. The word they used was abrasadabra. Some etymologists have guessed that it was simply an elongation of the name of their high priest, Abrasax.
Other word investigators have speculated that the beginning letters of three Hebrew words were loosely assembled to create this mystic term: ab, "father"; r'eb, "son"; cadosh, "holy spirit".
—The Story Behind the Word;
by Morton S. Freeman; iSi Press;
Philadelphia; 1985; page 4.

All of the sources seem to indicate that there is no unanimity as to the origins of the word abracadabra except that it has been used by "magicians" as a mystical aid to the success of their hocus-pocus.

· Word History: "Abracadabra," says the magician, unaware that at the time the thing to do with the word was wear it, not say it. Abracadabra was a magic word, the letters of which were arranged in an inverted pyramid [see image above] and worn as an amulet around the neck to protect the wearer against disease or trouble.
One fewer letter appeared in each line of the pyramid, until only a remained to form the vertex [highest point, apex] of the triangle. As the letters disappeared, so supposedly did the disease or trouble. While magicians still use abracadabra in their performances, the word itself has acquired another sense, "foolish or unintelligible talk."
—American Heritage Dictionary of the English Language;
Houghton Mifflin Company; Boston; 1992.

· A word spoken by magicians and conjurors supposedly to ensure the success of a trick.
Deliberately nonsensical language [Mid-16thC. Via Latin from, ultimately, Greek, possibly from abraxas, a series of letters with the value 365 (the days of the year) in numerological theory. Originally a cabbalistic word and formerly used as a talisman or charm against fever].
—Encarta World English Dictionary;
New York; 1995.